Everyone knows one of the main reasons the Spanish Conquistadores conquored the Aztecs so well is because of the diseases they brought over from Europe, which the Aztecs never had, and thus their bodies were not safe from them unlike the Spanish who had become used to the diseases. This plague killed off most of the Aztecs and then the Spanish marched into Tenochititlan and finished off the survivors in their mines. Okay, so, my question is this;
Why did the Spanish not also get some Aztec disease the same way the Aztecs got the Spanish disease? Surely they were not free from disease before the Spanish, and the Aztecs had somewhat better hygeine then the Spanish.
The Spanish should all be dead. Or at least the Conquistadores dead from an Aztec plague.
Well they usually only focus on how all the Aztecs died because of disease, and how almost no Spanish died. They should focus on how horribly they died of this disease as vengance for what they did to the Mexicans >:[
I know they didn't know it was a bioweapon they're too... pathertic
anyway it still killed Aztecs whether they knew about it or not
The blanket myth has nothing to do with this that was later in north america
I dont know where you got chemical warfare from...
You're looking at this all wrong, I know all of what you said, but what I want to know is why they do not meantion anything of the spanish dying from aztec diseases, but instead focusing on how much the aztecs suffered from the spanish diseases. Dosent matter now, it's been answered by thy as you can obviously see above unless youre blind in which case i dont know how the **** youre reading this anyway
I should put up question answered somewhere, but i want to see anyone elses answers...
